Read John 6:70

" Then Jesus said ' I Choose the twelve of you but one is [a] devil '

dude he is referring to Judas in dis case
it's a figurative term

Jessicha:
Read John 6:70

no

get another version if you are not clear of dat verse
gud u ask thou

zyzxx:
no
get another version if you are not clear of dat verse gud u ask thou

Lol , The greek word translated DEVIL appeared there , so whats ur point ?

That's a metaphor!

Assignment:
Was Herod a man or a fox? (Luke 13:32)
were the Pharisees humans or vipers? (Matthew 23:33)

Femiartalade:
dude he is referring to Judas in dis case

it's a figurative term

Farabale , here is what the translators did :

The greek reads : " one is Devil" , ( the same greek word used for Satan the Devil) . But the translators fear that if they leave it like that , it clearly means Judas Is Satan The Devil . So they modify and said : " one is {a} devil" , adding the article " a" and in small letter
d evil , to differentiate the devil here from the Original Devil ! Do u support that modification ?

Scholar8200:
That's a metaphor!

Assignment:
Was Herod a man or a fox?
were the Pharisees humans or vipers? (Matthew 23:33)

Fox and vipers are names of animals pls , Greek -diabolos- at John 6:70 is the name of who in the scriptures ?

Jessicha:


Fox and vipers are names of animals pls , Greek -diabolos- at John 6:70 is the name of who in the scriptures ?

Bottom line: both names are used for creatures other than the subject (man). Hence it is still a metaphor.

Scholar8200:
Bottom line: both names are used for creatures other than the subject (man). Hence it is still a metaphor.

You are missing the point! The point is the construction of that verse .

The greek reads " one is Devil" which literally points to the Devil .

But the english translation reads " one is (a) devil" , adding article "a" and small letter "d" coz in english langugage , capital " D" refer to satan the Devil.

Which is correct , Devil or a devil ?

Jessicha:


You are missing the point! The point is the construction of that verse .

The greek reads " one is Devil" which literally points to the Devil .

But the english translation reads " one is (a) devil" , adding article "a" and small letter "d" coz in english langugage , capital " D" refer to satan the Devil.

Which is correct , Devil or a devil ?

Ma'am, we are splitting hairs here. (noticed you've changed the topic of the thread!)


None is wrong! The next verse already shows the reason why the article had to be introduced. we are talking of the Bible being translated with respect to structure and thought and not the Bible being transliterated. They are two different things. Now let's consider the passage:

70 Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and [size=13pt]one of you[/size] is a devil?

71 He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being [size=14pt]one[/size] of the twelve.

John 6:70,71
I trust that verse 71 is in the original greek!

Jessicha:


Farabale , here is what the translators did :

The greek reads : " one is Devil" , ( the same greek word used for Satan the Devil) . But the translators fear that if they leave it like that , it clearly means Judas Is Satan The Devil . So they modify and said : " one is {a} devil" , adding the article " a" and in small letter
d evil , to differentiate the devil here from the Original Devil ! Do u support that modification ?

oga we both saying d same thing

Jessicha:


Lol , The greek word translated DEVIL appeared there , so whats ur point ?

ma'am devil is diffrent from Satan
devil can mean some1 Dat is wicked and so
so dis qualify Judas

Scholar8200:
Ma'am, we are splitting hairs here. (noticed you've changed the topic of the thread!)

Yes , changed cos u guys keep missing the point .

None is wrong! The next verse already shows the reason why the article had to be introduced. We are talking of the Bible being translated with respect to structure and thought and not the Bible being transliterated. They are two different things. Now let's consider the passage:

70 Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and [size=13pt]one of you[/size] is a devil?

71 He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being [size=14pt]one[/size] of the twelve.

Good !! @ underlined , think about that before u criticize those who introduced the article "a"
At John 1:1 , the next verse already showed why ! John 1:2

Femiartalade:


oga we both saying d same thing

Think abuh that before u criticize those who add the article " a" at john 1:1 , "a god " paralleled "a devil "

Jessicha:


Yes , changed cos u guys keep missing the point .



Good !! @ underlined , think about that before u criticize those who introduced the article "a"
At John 1:1 , the next verse already showed why ! John 1:2

And John 1:17 (Isaiah 9, Hebrews 1 etc) establishes the fact that the Word was God and is the Only Begotten! Meaning the thought and the structure of John 1:1 was contaminated by those who introduced the article there!

This is translation not transliteration. The sense and the context of John 6:70 vis a vis other parallel passages endorses the article; while the sense and context of John 1:1 vis a vis parallel passages contradicts the article 'a' in John 1:1
Going down to John 1:3, we see that creation was attributed to the Word Who Is God and this agrees with other passages eg Isaiah 40:28. Now John 1:1-3 and other passages show us a distinction of Personalities and a Oneness that is literal.
Why divert your own thread?

Scholar8200:
And John 1:17 (Isaiah 9, Hebrews 1 etc) establishes the fact that the Word was God and is the Only Begotten! Meaning the thought and the structure of John 1:1 was contaminated by those who introduced the article there!

This is translation not transliteration. The sense and the context of John 6:70 vis a vis other parallel passages endorses the article; while the sense and context of John 1:1 vis a vis parallel passages contradicts the article 'a' in John 1:1
Going down to John 1:3, we see that creation was attributed to the Word Who Is God and this agrees with other passages eg Isaiah 40:28. Now John 1:1-3 and other passages show us a distinction of Personalities and a Oneness that is literal.
Why divert your own thread?

Not diverted, this is where am going . John 1:2 says " this one was in the beginning With God" , this proves the person identified as the word himself is not God Almighty himself BUT was with God , you cant be with yourself !

Jessicha:


Not diverted, this is where am going . John 1:2 says " this one was in the beginning With God" , this proves the person identified as the word himself is not God Almighty himself BUT was with God , you cant be with yourself !

Exactly! The Personalities are distinct but One. The Father is not the Son and the Son is not the Spirit but ,"these Three are One.

Scholar8200:
Exactly! The Personalities are distinct but One. The Father is not the Son and the Son is not the Spirit but , "these Three are One.

The moment I saw the underlined , i knew uv been scammed .

Jessicha:


The moment I saw the underlined , i knew uv been scammed .

Alright.