Toluwani95:





where in the Bible is a single epistle written to different set of pple? why will 1 John 1 be to unbelievers and 1 John 2 to believers More John used "we" in vs 9......, is John also an unbeliever

@Toluwani95,
If you check the original Greek translation of that Chapter, you will discover that some parts of the Chapter were written to Believers while the rest were written to agnostic Jews (unbelievers) who don't believe they have committed any sin.
That's why John, who was also a Jew wrote to them in verse 8-9 using editorial 'We'.
For example, if you're a Nigerian and you want to describe Nigerian traditions to an audience filled with citizens of Nigeria, you will start with 'We'.
You can check a Greek Bible to confirm if you're yet to be convinced.
Thank you.
Stay blessed!

now!! truly this is the time of grace ..... but I have a question oooo

the Bible say Jesus never change

and we all know he is the same as the father my question is

isn't it this same God that destroyed the Israelites that sinned ...... isn't it this same God that destroyed the Israelites that lusted for ORDINARY MEAT ...... isn't it this same God that chased the sent his BELOVED ISRAELITES on exile.......

isn't it this same God that David described as having STEADFAST LOVE yet David was punished for his sins........

wasn't he loving then....... did he just start loving us


please I need answers