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Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by Abdulgaffar22: 9:01pm On Dec 15, 2016 |
Jesus said “I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24). Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i: e the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). If this command of “not preaching to the gentiles” was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations before Jesus ascended to heaven as proclaimed by the Christians, then why did peter tell the Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus departure? Was peter not aware of the cancellation? In fact, if it was already in the divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later be cancelled, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been:” IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES “or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. Furthermore, if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? Again, why did Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)? Furthermore, If the apostles were later instructed to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)? Also, why did Peter address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1). Furthermore, If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these disciples be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew 19:28)?Furthermore, if the apostles were later instructed to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?Furthermore, If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1st Corinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.). Furthermore, If the disciples were later instructed to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:. All these facts are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews and not to the Gentiles. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood this command so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20). Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the incidents mentioned above took place after Jesus has ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the disciples knew nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses where the original twelve apostles were commanded by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later inserted into the text of New Testament. Similarly, Qur’an 61:6 and Qur’an 3:49 also confirm the truth that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites (i:e the Jews).The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of Gentiles was majorly due to the activities of Paul (Galatians 2:7-9, Romans 15:16, Ephesians 3:1-, and not by the twelve chosen apostles of Jesus who spent most of their life time in Jerusalem. But who was this Paul that identified himself specifically as an apostle to the Gentiles (Romans 11:13)? How did he manage to associate himself with Jesus Christ? Read below! Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to Paul on his road to Damascus after Jesus’ departure (Acts 22:6-9) was true Jesus Christ :yet before his departure, Jesus said to the disciples: Take heed that no man deceive you. For many shall come in my name, saying; I am the Christ; and shall deceive many(Matthew 24:4-5)…….“Then if anyone says here is Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also told the original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN (Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light. Indeed, the fact that Paul contradicts Jesus in many important issues is even enough to show that he did not meet the true Jesus Christ. For example Jesus said: Do NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the) PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the LAW till ALL IS FULFILLED-Matthew 5:17-18). Yet Paul declares as follows: But BEFORE faith came, we were KEPT UNDER GUARD BY THE LAW, kept for the faith which after-ward would be revealed. Therefore, THE LAW WAS OUR TUTOR to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But AFTER faith has come, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A TUTOR (Galatians 3:23-25). Again Paul said; Having ABOLISHED in his flesh, the ENMITY, THAT IS, THE LAW OF COMMANDMENTS contained in the ordinances(Ephesians 2:15). See how Paul flatly opposed Jesus; Jesus said he came NOT TO DESTROY BUT TO FULFILL the law but Paul insists that the true followers of Christ are no longer under the law because the law of commandments has been ABOLISHED in the flesh of crucified Jesus. However, the Christian Scholars try to resolve this obvious contradiction by saying that Jesus did not destroy the law but fulfilled the law by DYING ON THE CROSS: which implies that the law was NOT just ORDINARILY AND SIMPLY DESTROYED but it was ULTIMATELY ABOLISHED (i:e later destroyed) due to its FULFILMENT on the cross. In this way, they thought that there is no contradiction again between the word of Jesus and the word of Paul. But if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, why did Jesus have to say again in the next verse(Matthew 5:19) as follows: WHOEVER THEREFORE BREAKS ONE OF THE LEAST OF THESE COMMANDMENTS, AND TEACHES MEN SO, shall be called LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever DOES AND TEACHES THEM, he shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven”. See how the phrase “WHOEVER THEREFORE" connects this verse to those before it; which implies that the law which Jesus was talking about in Matthew 5:17-18 is still binding on the Jews and never abolished on the cross. Furthermore, if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, then Christians do not have to follow any Law again (whether ceremonial law or moral law) since Jesus statement in Matthew 5:18 ends with" TILL ALL THE LAW IS FULFILLED". Are the Christians going to agree with this interpretation? Certainly not! This proves that contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the issue of keeping the law can never be resolved. Again, despite the fact that circumcision is an everlasting covenant of God for the Israelites (Genesis 17:9-14) and Jesus himself was also circumcised (Luke 2:21); yet Paul went ahead to write as follows: “Indeed, I Paul say to you that if you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. And I testify again to EVERY MAN who become circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. You have become estranged (i.e. cut off ) from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by the law; you have fallen from grace(Galatians 5:2-4)”. The term “EVERY MAN” used by Paul in the verse quoted above is an indisputable evidence that he condemned the act of circumcision for both Jews and Gentiles. If this is not the case, then the Jewish believers in the Jerusalem would not bound themselves with oath that they will never eat nor drink until they kill Paul (Acts 23:12-14). In fact, this single fact alone that Paul condemn the act of circumcision, an EVERLASTING covenant of God, is another prove that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to Paul on the road to Damascus was a false Christ as already foretold by Jesus Christ during his earthly ministry. Paul was also caught lying red handed; he was accused of teaching all the Jews among the Gentiles to forsake circumcision and the Law of Moses (Acts 21:18-31). But instead of proving the accusation to be true or false when the King Agrippa asked him about that accusation, Paul now claimed that he was being accused for the hope of the promise made by God i.e. the resurrection of the dead (Acts 26:1- and for the fact that he advised people to repent and turn to God (Acts 26:19-21). There is nothing like “circumcision and the law of Moses” in the answers presented by Paul to the King. In fact, Paul himself admitted to be a liar when he said: “For if the truth of God has increased through MY LIE to His glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner?(Romans 3:7)”. Yet the same Paul wrote almost half of the books found in the New Testament. See the foundation upon which the edifice of Christianity is erected! |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by Scholar8200(m): 9:21pm On Dec 15, 2016 |
You properly concealed your post. Anyway to reply your topic: It starts from Genesis where God promised Abraham that: And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.Genesis 22:18 Here, we see that ALL the Earth, not just one, shall be blessed by that Seed. The descendants of Abraham - the Israelites- had a benefit since He came by them but: He came unto his own, and his own received him not John 1:11 These were the lost sheep and majority rejected Him. Infact, God had before revealed that: 1. Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles ' I the Lord have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;Isaiah 42:1,6 And in accordance with the foregoing, Jesus said: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. Luke 24:47 Now, why would the 12 and many others in Acts go to preach in various nations if there was no such command? Just before you claim Paul started it remember Peter actually started it when he went to Cornelius' house! Besides, if muslims say Jesus was not crucified, when did He give this command that the disciples lived and died for? Who motivated a band of fearful fishermen who were all too eager to return to their nets to suddenly become fearless preachers even in the face of death? 3 Likes 2 Shares |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by alBHAGDADI: 10:57pm On Dec 15, 2016 |
Your questions are too much o. Let me give you a summary answer. Peter was assigned to the Jews while Paul to the gentiles. Galatians 2:8 "For the same God who worked through Peter as the apostle to the Jews also worked through me as the apostle to the Gentiles." This didn't prevent Peter from ministering to the gentiles when needed. He was shown a vision of unclean things which the lord told him to eat. You can read the entire Acts chapter 10, but below is an excerpt. Acts 10:28-29 28 And he said to them, “You yourselves know how unlawful it is for a man who is a Jew to associate with a foreigner or to visit him; and yet God has shown me that I should not call any man unholy or unclean. 29 “That is why I came without even raising any objection when I was sent for. So I ask for what reason you have sent for me.” That vision brought to his memory the command Yahshua gave to all the disciples during the period he was ascending to heaven. Mathew 28:19 "Therefore go and make disciples of ALL NATIONS, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit," In a nutshell, Christ had to focus on Israel before he sent his disciples to preach to the world. Just the same way APC did well in Lagos before moving forward to conquer the federal government centre. 1 Like 1 Share |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by alBHAGDADI: 11:15pm On Dec 15, 2016 |
Abdulgaffar22:You claim that since Christ didn't tell his disciples about Paul before he ascended to heaven, it means that Paul was fake and a liar for saying he saw Christ. Your ignorant self forgot that it was Ananias, a spirit filled disciple, that healed Paul of the blindness that befell him when he beheld the brightness of Yahshua. Acts 9:17-18 17"Then Ananias went to the house and entered it. Placing his hands on Saul, he said, "Brother Saul, the LORDJESUS, who appeared to you on the road as you were coming here--has sent me so that you may see again and be filled with the Holy Spirit." 18 Immediately, something like scales fell from Saul's eyes, and he could see again. He got up and was baptized," |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by reallest(f): 11:23pm On Dec 15, 2016 |
Round one fight! |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by felixomor: 6:31am On Dec 16, 2016 |
reallest: There is no fight here sister. Its just somebody who doesnt understand bible writing from his mind. And he has been corrected. |
Re: Did Jesus Really Command The Apostles To Preach To The Gentiles? by reallest(f): 7:46am On Dec 16, 2016 |
felixomor:Only time will tell |
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