HeyCorleone:


I don't understand the disrespect you're meaning here.

Isn't she a woman?

Besides, Jesus is begotten of God. He didn't have to attach any special attention or reverence to Mary. Still he doesn't mean he didn't respect here. The fact that he honoured her every wish is surefire proof.

PaChukwudi44:


so you want to also start calling her woman?

emmie14:


Jesus is not from Nigeria or Africa. Different countries different tradition. So people have tradition of calling there parents by name doesn't mean disrespectfulness?

GraGra247:


He wasn't trying to disrespect her. He foreknew that in time to come ignorant people will turn her to a deity. He wanted everyone to know that she's only a woman and nothing more.

wtfcoded:


Nnaa Op, no start wetin pass u!

OLAADEGBU:


What tradition or culture calls their mother by name?

emmie14:


Bro travel. Ask guys from Europe. South Americans.

OLAADEGBU:


Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"? Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

GraGra247:
He wasn't trying to disrespect her. He foreknew that in time to come ignorant people will turn her to a deity. He wanted everyone to know that she's only a woman and nothing more.

asuustrike1:

Do you have biblical backing for this assertion of yours?

OLAADEGBU:
Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "woman"? Why didn't Jesus show more respect to His mother in John 2:4?

GraGra247:
He wasn't trying to disrespect her. He foreknew that in time to come ignorant people will turn her to a deity. He wanted everyone to know that she's only a woman and nothing more.

asuustrike1:
Do you have biblical backing for this assertion of yours?

GraGra247:
Do you have a biblical backing for using your God given intellect to figure out things.

MuttleyLaff:


The "woman" word usage had nothing to do with guarding against deification or Mary being perceived as a god because as a matter fact, Jesus used the "woman" word for other females on at least on three different ocassions

I dont think he will have any

"And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."
- Genesis 3:6

"Unto the woman He said, I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception; in sorrow you shall bring forth children;
and your desire shall be to your husband, and he shall rule over you."
- Genesis 3:16

"And Jesus said to her,
“Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come.”"
- John 2:4

"¹⁰When Jesus had lifted himself up, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her,
Woman, where are those your accusers? has no man condemned you?
¹¹She said, No man, Lord.
And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn you: go, and sin no more."
- John 8:10-11

"And when Jesus saw her, He called her to him, and said unto her, Woman, thou art loosed from thine infirmity(i.e. meaning, she henceforth is free from that mental condition which deprived her of enjoying or accomplishing what she would like to do"
- Luke 13:12

Jesus' "woman" comment has nothing remotely at all connected to male chauvinism. It has nothing to do with being disrespectful to neither His mother, the woman allegedly caught in the act of adultery or the woman He healed who couldnt lift up herself. People havent cop on to how John 8:11b and Luke 13:12 above was reversing, overturning and negating Genesis 3:16. If you know, you know. Who no know, no go know but las las, we will get there and know.

God did not chastise Eve for being a badass strong, successful, powerful and intelligent virtuous woman, but He told her off for openly disregarding His express command not to eat of the fruit, this because man's dominion mandate didnt last more than a day though, as everything crumbled and came crashingly tumbling down, in the last hour, as a result of the woman taking off the fruit of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil before God's approval of them eating from it. It is the same "woman" spirit in Eve, from Genesis 3:6 above, manifesting in Jesus' mother Mary, as seen in John 2:4 above, that Jesus was talking to you. Equally it also is the same "woman" spirit in Eve, from Genesis 3:6 above, present in John 8:11b and Luke 13:12 that Jesus is seeing, and so addressing His comments to, with reversing, overturning and negating Genesis 3:16 blip. This is Jesus asking the "woman" why do you want to jump the gun again like in Genesis 3:6. It is Jesus letting the "woman" know, she is loosen from the curse of Genesis 3:16. It is Jesus letting the "woman" know, she is is to rise up and be free from the Genesis 3:16 mental condition which deprived her of enjoying or accomplishing what she would like to do

Jesus wasn't being rude, He was comforting, He was healing, He was restoring the "woman"

GraGra247:
You simply and ignorantly buttressed my fact by the Bible verses you quoted.

GraGra247:
He called her WOMAN and not MOTHER.

He called he woman, an ordinary common word used to address so many ordinary common females all through the Bible.

He simply showed everyone Mary is not a deity and certainly not the MOTHER OF GOD.

OLAADEGBU:


Suggested answer:

https://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Mary-woman.html

Question: "Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as 'woman' in John 2:4?"

Answer: In John 2, Mary, Jesus, and some of the disciples are attending a wedding. In John 2:3, Mary tells Jesus that the host has run out of wine. Mary obviously wants Jesus to do something special to fix the situation; He had performed no miracles up to this point (John 2:11), and Mary undoubtedly thought it was time He showed who He was. Jesus' response, read in modern English, strikes some people as abrupt, even impolite or rude. He responds, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come” (ESV). It's Jesus' addressing His mother as "Woman" that seems most rude to us.

One of the problems with translating from one language to another is that certain phrases have meanings not easily transferred. Phrases that don't mean exactly what they say are often called "idioms," and they can cause confusion in translation. For example, exclamations such as "heads up!" or "look out!" actually mean the opposite of their literal words—if someone yells, "Heads up!" we usually duck our heads. A native English speaker understands such idioms instinctively, but in order to translate them, we'd have to pick words that aren’t synonyms—heads up! might translate into words that mean "get down!"—or end up with a confusing phrase.

What Jesus says to His mother in John 2:4 sounds almost rude in English. However, in the original language, and in that culture, Mary would not have interpreted Jesus' words that way. The term woman was used like we use the term ma'am. By addressing Mary this way, Jesus does distance Himself from His mother somewhat—He was exerting His independence from her wishes—but in no way was it a rude manner of speaking. Jesus lovingly uses the same word from the cross when He tells Mary that He is entrusting her to John's care (John 19:26).

The question Jesus asks His mother isn't rude, either. It may sound rude in the KJV: “What have I to do with thee?” (John 2:4), but it was a common idiom. In the Greek, Jesus' question is "Ti emoi kai soi?" The phrase was used to ask of the connection between two people. The question could be translated as "What business do we have with each other?" Or, in less formal terms, "What does this have to do with me?" (ESV) or "Why do you involve me?" (NIV). Again, Jesus is expressing the fact that He is independent of His mother; as eager as Mary was to see Jesus do a miracle, she had no right to determine the time or the manner in which Jesus publicly revealed His glory. Jesus makes His point gently and without being rude, however.

Jesus concludes His statement to Mary with, "My hour has not yet come." The reference to His "hour" or "time" (NET) means that Jesus was constantly working from a divine timetable. So, He wasn't going to reveal His power sooner than God the Father intended (see John 5:30). One of the points Jesus made in His temptation in the desert was that there is such a thing as doing the right thing for the wrong reasons (Matthew 4:1–10). That is, it would be wrong to perform a miracle if the time and place are not according to God's will.

Jesus did act, performing His first miracle. He turned the water into wine, but He did so in a very subtle, subdued way. Only the servants, Mary, and a few disciples even knew what He had done. The miracle was to introduce the disciples to His ability, not to show off or to go public with His power (see John 2:11).

So, Jesus isn't being rude or dismissive in John 2:4. He's politely pointing out that He follows God's timing, not Mary's; and that this is not His moment to be publicly revealed. Some of the respectful tone is lost in translation, perhaps, but Jesus was not being rude.