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Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? - Religion - Nairaland

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Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by BibleStudyForum: 10:15pm On Aug 31, 2023
Daniel recorded a messianic prophecy about The Son of Man who is Jesus. So by calling himself Son Of Man he was https://biblestudyforum.com/threads/why-does-jesus-refer-to-himself-as-the-son-of-man.46/#post-61
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by correctguy101(m): 10:34pm On Aug 31, 2023
BibleStudyForum:
Daniel recorded a messianic prophecy about The Son of Man who is Jesus. So by calling himself Son Of Man he was https://biblestudyforum.com/threads/why-does-jesus-refer-to-himself-as-the-son-of-man.46/#post-61

Simple.

He was called YESHUA BEN YOSEP and BEN DAVID, (not YESHUA BEN YAHWEH) and Oga Joseph happens to be a man. A talented artisan in his time. And King David was his ancestor, so that explains that then. shocked

Theres record of him calling himself that, anything else, I don't know. It's as literal as it can be, no need for jumping for the so-called holy ghost/spirit ministering.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by delkuf(m): 10:46pm On Aug 31, 2023
He called himself the son of man to show us
his human nature. The Lord Jesus Christ is a spirit but he came to earth as a human. So it is logical for he to call himself the son of man

3 Likes 1 Share

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AllenSpencer: 10:53pm On Aug 31, 2023
delkuf:
He called himself the son of man to show us
his human nature. The Lord Jesus Christ is a spirit but he came to earth as a human. So it is logical for he to call himself the son of man

Your explanation addresses nothing.

Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man? We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?

Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”. Who was he talking too? Was he talking to himself?
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by MaxInDHouse(m): 10:54pm On Aug 31, 2023
BibleStudyForum:
Daniel recorded a messianic prophecy about The Son of Man who is Jesus. So by calling himself Son Of Man he was https://biblestudyforum.com/threads/why-does-jesus-refer-to-himself-as-the-son-of-man.46/#post-61

As a spirit being he is not qualified to pay the price, he must be a full fleshed human just like Adam {1Corinthians 15:45} that's why God transformed the life of this person into the womb of Mary to be born as a son of Man.
Note that the word "MAN" in the beginning refers to the first human couple:

And God went on to create the MAN in his image, in God’s image he created him; male and female he created them! Genesis 1:27

So when Isaiah said:

"For a CHILD has been born to us, A SON has been given to us; And the rulership will rest on his shoulder. His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace" Isaiah 9:6

He was talking about Jesus the child/son born to MAN-kind that's why Jesus whose existence was before the world could refer to himself as the son of man!

3 Likes

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by delkuf(m): 11:08pm On Aug 31, 2023
AllenSpencer:


Your explanation addresses nothing.

Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man? We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?

Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”. Who was he talking too? Was he talking to himself?

that is what I want to tell you, if you are not satisfy with it, suit yourself
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Ohyoudidnt: 4:10am On Sep 01, 2023
BibleStudyForum:
Daniel recorded a messianic prophecy about The Son of Man who is Jesus. So by calling himself Son Of Man he was https://biblestudyforum.com/threads/why-does-jesus-refer-to-himself-as-the-son-of-man.46/#post-61

This represents Hezekiah more, the Judean king of the Old Testament. The references to the Son of man in Daniel are more aligned with Hezekiah than with Jesus.

To begin, the context in which the term "Son of man" is used in the Book of Daniel strongly supports the interpretation of it being Hezekiah. In Daniel 7:13-14, the phrase is used to describe a human figure with qualities of both divinity and royalty. These characteristics align closely with Hezekiah, who was a righteous and faithful king of Judah, highly regarded for his religious reformation and trust in God. Hezekiah's story in the Old Testament records numerous instances where he sought divine intervention and received miraculous deliverance, seemingly similar to the descriptions in Daniel.

Furthermore , the time period in which the Book of Daniel was written aligns with Hezekiah's reign rather than Jesus Christ. The events depicted in the book are set during the Babylonian exile, which began around 586 BCE. Jesus Christ was born centuries later, making it unlikely for the Son of man references in Daniel to refer to him. On the other hand, Hezekiah lived and ruled during the same period when these prophecies were likely written, making him a more plausible candidate for the Son of man in Daniel.

2 Likes

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Dtruthspeaker: 5:21am On Sep 01, 2023
AllenSpencer:


Your explanation addresses nothing.

Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man? We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?

Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”. Who was he talking too? Was he talking to himself?


You can't save a person without being in direct contact with them. Thus, this is Him having a direct contact and relationship with us from our level. And that way was to reduce Himself to a man and a Son of man.

Which is we sing

Don Moen
"God With Us"

He walked where I walked
He stood where I stand
He felt what I feel
He understands

He knows my frailty
Shared my humanity
Tempted in every way
Yet without sin

God with us!
So close to us
God with us
Emmanuel

1 Like 1 Share

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AllenSpencer: 5:25am On Sep 01, 2023
Dtruthspeaker:


You can't save a person without being in direct contact with them. Thus, this is Him having a direct contact and relationship with us from our level. And that way was to reduce Himself to a man and a Son of man.

Which is we sing

Don Moen
"God With Us"

He walked where I walked
He stood where I stand
He felt what I feel
He understands

He knows my frailty
Shared my humanity
Tempted in every way
Yet without sin

God with us!
So close to us
God with us
Emmanuel


Meaning we all on Earth can NEVER be saved since we don't have direct contact.

From the Bible, Jesus use of words and his statement, clearly shows he was referring to a superior being.

Even as at crucifixion, in the face of death and pains, he still called on his father. Was he also referring to himself at that point?


Matthew 26:39

And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will.”


Did he bow to himself and same time called himself father? These are simple English that can easily be decoded and interpreted.

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Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Dtruthspeaker: 5:44am On Sep 01, 2023
Ohyoudidnt:


This represents Hezekiah more, the Judean king of the Old Testament. The references to the Son of man in Daniel are more aligned with Hezekiah than with Jesus.

To begin, the context in which the term "Son of man" is used in the Book of Daniel strongly supports the interpretation of it being Hezekiah. In Daniel 7:13-14, the phrase is used to describe a human figure with qualities of both divinity and royalty. These characteristics align closely with Hezekiah, who was a righteous and faithful king of Judah, highly regarded for his religious reformation and trust in God. Hezekiah's story in the Old Testament records numerous instances where he sought divine intervention and received miraculous deliverance, seemingly similar to the descriptions in Daniel.

First, Hezekiah was not divine and I'm the end he still fell like his father's before him.

Secondly, Hezekiah was not the only faithfull king. We Jehosaphath, Asa, Uz-ziah and others.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Dtruthspeaker: 5:50am On Sep 01, 2023
AllenSpencer:

Meaning we all on Earth can NEVER be saved since we don't have direct contact.

Did you not hear The Way was lost and all men
had gone a stray?

You can't save a person without being in direct contact with them.

AllenSpencer:

From the Bible, Jesus use of words and his statement, clearly shows he was referring to a superior being.

Even as at crucifixion, in the face of death and pains, he still called on his father. Was he also referring to himself at that point?


Matthew 26:39

And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will.”


Did he bow to himself and same time called himself father? These are simple English that can easily be decoded and interpreted.

You have shifted off topic. The post is about explaining how and why and what The Lord became man for. John1:11-13 hope you have not deleted this portion like the jw devils have done.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by cornelboy(f): 12:06pm On Sep 01, 2023
AllenSpencer:



Meaning we all on Earth can NEVER be saved since we don't have direct contact.

From the Bible, Jesus use of words and his statement, clearly shows he was referring to a superior being.

Even as at crucifixion, in the face of death and pains, he still called on his father. Was he also referring to himself at that point?


Matthew 26:39

And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will.”


Did he bow to himself and same time called himself father? These are simple English that can easily be decoded and interpreted.
Hahahaha Trinitarians will never agree with you. I don't know what was done to their brain undecided undecided

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Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by MindHacker9009(m): 1:17pm On Sep 01, 2023
Good question because his is the son of the fake holy spirit that mated with Mary another man's wife to produce himself and then offered himself on the cross as a sacrifice to himself, so he should have said he is the son of the fake holy spirit.

1 Like 1 Share

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by BibleStudyForum: 2:08pm On Sep 01, 2023
MindHacker9009:
Good question because his is the son of the fake holy spirit that mated with Mary another man's wife to produce himself and offer himself on the cross as a sacrifice to himself, so he should have said he is the son of the fake holy spirit.
You need urgent help... MAY GOD HAVE MERCY ON YOU.








https://biblestudyforum.com/register









.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by 22jumpstreet1(m): 3:11pm On Sep 01, 2023
AllenSpencer:


Your explanation addresses nothing.

Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man? We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?

Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”. Who was he talking too? Was he talking to himself?


yes, we are all God (Gods breath or spirit) having a human experience...psalm 104:29-31
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by MindHacker9009(m): 3:39pm On Sep 01, 2023
BibleStudyForum:

You need urgent help... MAY GOD HAVE MERCY ON YOU.

https://biblestudyforum.com/register
.


You are the one that needs urgent help and only Almighty God of the Old Testament can deliver you and help you to get your brain back.


.

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by BibleStudyForum: 9:46pm On Sep 12, 2023
MindHacker9009:



You are the one that needs urgent help and only Almighty God of the Old Testament can deliver you and help you to get your brain back.


.
shocked shocked kiss kiss
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by NNTR: 3:20am On Sep 13, 2023
BibleStudyForum:
Daniel recorded a messianic prophecy about The Son of Man who is Jesus. So by calling himself Son Of Man he was https://biblestudyforum.com/threads/why-does-jesus-refer-to-himself-as-the-son-of-man.46/#post-61

delkuf:
He called himself the son of man to show us
his human nature. The Lord Jesus Christ is a spirit but he came to earth as a human. So it is logical for he to call himself the son of man
Are you minding the naysayer(s)

You are right on the money, being that Jesus often refer to Himself as "The Son Of Man", simply, as a way of pointing out the humanity side of Him, as opposed to, pointing to, the undeniable divinity side of Him.

Whenever and/or wherever, the word, Man, is found used, in all "The Son Of Man" contexts, the word, Man, is used, to mean, be associated to be a human being of either sex, and so the title, "The Son Of Man", then simply translates to mean, the offspring or Son, produced by means of or by the way of a human being

Divinity and humanity converged, by means of and/or by the way of the Holy Ghost and Mary.

Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by NNTR: 3:30am On Sep 13, 2023
AllenSpencer:
Your explanation addresses nothing.
It actually did

AllenSpencer:
Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man?
We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?
No, it doesnt not make us God.
To make us God, isnt in the plan.
There cant be two captains of a ship. There can and will only be one God

AllenSpencer:
Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”.
Who was he talking too?
In that context, He was talking to the Father

AllenSpencer:
Was he talking to himself?
In a kind of a way, yes, He was talking to Himself

Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by BibleStudyForum: 11:53pm On Sep 22, 2023
shocked
NNTR:
It actually did

No, it doesnt not make us God.
To make us God, isnt in the plan.
There cant be two captains of a ship. There can and will only be one God

In that context, He was talking to the Father

In a kind of a way, yes, He was talking to Himself

Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.
shocked cool shocked
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Iamanoited: 7:02am On Sep 23, 2023
THAT EVERYONE WHO BELIEVES IN HIM AND ACCEPTS HIM AS THE WAY, THE TRUTH AND THE LIFE MAY BECOME THE SONS AND DAUGHTERS OF GOD.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AntiChristian: 5:14pm On Sep 23, 2023
The Bible is a mystery!

Jesus = Father

But the father is greater than Jesus!

Jesus can of himself do nothing!

Jesus was asked of the hour and he said only the father knows it.

Jesus prayed to the father many times and even fasted to the father who happens to be himself lol!

Jesus plainly said he is going to his God!

God dey get God?

I agree Jesus was going to God (himself)!

cool

Na mystery wey only the holy spirit can decipher!
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by NNTR: 7:29pm On Sep 23, 2023
AntiChristian:
The Bible is a mystery!
Isaiah 45:15
People of Israel, your God is a mystery, though He alone can save.

The Bible is not a mystery!
Now, you'll be right, if you had said that, God is a mystery, a mystery to be discovered, a mystery to remain.

AntiChristian:
Jesus = Father

But the father is greater than Jesus!

Jesus can of himself do nothing!

Jesus was asked of the hour and he said only the father knows it.

Jesus prayed to the father many times and even fasted to the father who happens to be himself lol!

Jesus plainly said he is going to his God!

God dey get God?

I agree Jesus was going to God (himself)!

cool

Na mystery wey only the holy spirit can decipher!
Jagaban = President

But the President is greater than Jagaban!

Jagaban can of himself do nothing!

If Jagaban is asked of the hour, his likely reply will be only the President knows it.

Jagaban prays to the President many times and even fast to the President who happens to be himself lol!

Jagaban plainly said he is going to be President! (i.e. Emi lo kan)

AntiChristian:
God dey get God?
Yes.

AntiChristian:
I agree Jesus was going to God (himself)!

cool
Good

Jesus was going to Influence (Himself)!

AntiChristian:
Na mystery wey only the holy spirit can decipher!
Glad you know that

Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.

1 Like

Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Dtruthspeaker: 7:40pm On Sep 23, 2023
AllenSpencer:


Your explanation addresses nothing.

Even after coming to Earth in human form, does he really still need to address himself as the son of man? We all on Earth are also offsprings of men, does that make us God?

Moreover, he was always making mention of “My father”. Who was he talking too? Was he talking to himself?


Did you not hear "ye are gods? Psalm 82:6/John 10?

He is right!
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AllenSpencer: 9:40pm On Sep 23, 2023
Dtruthspeaker:


Did you not hear "ye are gods? Psalm 82:6/John 10?

He is right!

Meaning he is also a god like me and you. He is not God

How can a God be calling on his father? Does God have a father?
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by MaxInDHouse(m): 9:51pm On Sep 23, 2023
AllenSpencer:

Meaning he is also a god like me and you. He is not God How can a God be calling on his father? Does God have a father?
It's translators that used the upper and lower case when translating the title "GOD" Moses was God {Exodus 7:1} many others were also referred to as Gods {Psalms 82:6} so when the same Bible said "the word (Jesus) was God" {John 1:1} it simply means that Jesus is the promised prophet who is coming in the manner of Moses {Deuteronomy 18:18} both Moses and Jesus served as Prophet and God in their lifetime.
But trinitarians just want to blind themselves to this fact only to start saying Jesus is the same God who sent himself!
Well Jesus has cleared the whole thing when he told a disciple that he is going back to his father who is our father and his God who is also our God! John 20:17 smiley

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Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AllenSpencer: 9:54pm On Sep 23, 2023
MaxInDHouse:

It's translators that used the upper and lower case when translating the title "GOD" Moses was God {Exodus 7:1} many others were also referred to as Gods {Psalms 82:6} so when the same Bible said "the word (Jesus) was God" {John 1:1} it simply means that Jesus is the promised prophet who is coming in the manner of Moses {Deuteronomy 18:18} both Moses and Jesus served as Prophet and God in their lifetime.
But trinitarians just want to blind themselves to this fact only to start saying Jesus is the same God who sent himself!
Well Jesus has cleared the whole thing when he told a disciple that he is going back to his father who is our father and his God who is also our God! John 20:17 smiley

I agree with your explanation.

Well stated.

Calling him the Almighty God is what I disagree with.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by MaxInDHouse(m): 10:01pm On Sep 23, 2023
AllenSpencer:

I agree with your explanation.
Well stated.
Calling him the Almighty God is what I disagree with.

Jesus can't be the Almighty God as he begged for his life:

During his life on earth, Christ offered up supplications and also petitions, with strong outcries and tears, to the One who was able to save him out of death, and he was favorably heard for his godly fear! Hebrews 5:7

So who saved him if he is the ALMIGHTY? undecided

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Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by AllenSpencer: 10:03pm On Sep 23, 2023
MaxInDHouse:


Jesus can't be the Almighty God as he begged for his life:

During his life on earth, Christ offered up supplications and also petitions, with strong outcries and tears, to the One who was able to save him out of death, and he was favorably heard for his godly fear! Hebrews 5:7

So who saved him if he is the ALMIGHTY? undecided

That is my point, but some people will start explaining what you cannot even digest. Telling you that he is 3 in 1
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by Dtruthspeaker: 5:58am On Sep 24, 2023
AllenSpencer:


Meaning he is also a god like me and you. He is not God

How can a God be calling on his father? Does God have a father?

Did you not hear Him Say "My Father" and that He is The Son of God? And that the seas, sicknesses and death obeyed Him? He is God, The Lord. But His Father is The Most High and The One Who Sits on The Throne, Where The Lord goes to sit on His Right Hand.

Anyway, this is going off point for the topic is "son of man" which has already been explained to you that this is Him, thougb not a man, He willfully alligns with the children of men.

Which is why we sing "God with us" Don Moen

He walked where I walked
He stood where I stand
He felt what I feel

He understands

He knows my frailty
Shared my humanity
Tempted in every way
Yet without sin

God with us!
So close to us
God with us
Emmanuel

One of a hated race
Stung by the prejudice
Suffering injustice

Yet He forgives!

As you have been told, this is Him aligning with humanity.
Re: Why Does Jesus Refer To Himself As "The Son Of Man"? by kingviny: 7:26am On Sep 24, 2023
The Son of God Jesus is different from the Person He referred to as the Son of Man .

That is why He always speak in the 3rd person when He refers to the Son of Man.

If you really want to know who the Son of Man is and His mission, then click the links below ...

http://www.abdrushin.us/in-the-light-of-truth/grail-message-by-abdrushin-010.php

http://www.abdrushin.us/in-the-light-of-truth/grail-message-by-abdrushin-060.php

http://www.abdrushin.us/grail-message/resonances-by-abdrushin-016.php

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