ACCORDING to orthodox Islam the Quran “is uncreated and eternal [and] was written from the beginning in golden rays on a magnificent tablet in heaven and was communicated to Mohammed by the angel Gabriel . . .” (1942 ed. of Ency. Amer., Vol. 16, under “Koran”) In the effort to place the Quran above all else and as equal with God himself, Muslim tradition has a paradox on its hands; for how could the Quran be eternal and uncreated and yet written on a magnificent tablet? Written by whom—if coeternal with God?

In the previous articles of this series we have seen that the giving of the Quran was not accompanied with miracles, as was the case with the giving of the Law and the gospel, and have found the position taken by Muslim scribes that the Quran is a literary miracle to be untenable. We also found that its claim to be confirmatory of previous Scripture was without foundation and that the blame for its failure to do this could not be placed on the Bible but must rest on the Quran. Further, we have seen that the message itself could not be used to prove its divine origin, as above all else divine truth must be consistent with itself, whereas we found much discrepancy in the Quran. All of which argues against the Quran’s being of God.

THE BIBLE FORETELLS MUHAMMAD’S WORK?

Among other arguments that Muslim scribes use to prove the inspiration of the Quran is that Muhammad and his work were foretold in the Bible. According to a footnote on Sura 46:10, Ali, (n.4783) “in the Quran and its Prophet [is found] a true confirmation of the previous scriptures . . . Islam [being] a fulfillment of the revelation of Moses himself! (See Deut. XVIII, 18-19)”

But how could that be? At Mount Sinai Jehovah told Moses: “I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee; and I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.”—Deut. 18:15-19, AS.

Certainly it cannot be justly argued that Muhammad, who was a descendant of Ishmael, was of Moses’ brothers. Nor did Muhammad speak in the name of Jehovah God, as did Moses. The fact is that centuries before Muhammad was born the apostle Peter, in addressing the bona fide brothers of Moses, the Jews, applied this text to Christ Jesus, and the facts show that this prophecy does apply to him.—Acts 3:20-23.

Another prophecy which Muslim scribes apply to Muhammad is that of Jesus regarding the coming of a “helper” or “comforter”. Says Ali, in his footnote comment on Sura 3:81: “In the New Testament as it now exists Muhammad is foretold in the Gospel of St. John 14:16; 15:26; and Joh 16:7. The future Comforter cannot be the Holy Spirit as understood by Christians, because the Holy Spirit already was present, helping and guiding Jesus.”

However, note that Jesus said that his going away would make his apostles orphans, but not for long, as the “spirit of truth”, the paraclete, the “helper” or “comforter”, was to come. He further told them that they would be baptized with this spirit of truth “not many days after this” and that they were to remain in Jerusalem until this spirit came. Surely all these promises and commands would not make sense if the apostles were to wait six centuries until Muhammad came!

True, the holy spirit was upon Jesus, but it is very apparent that, until it was given to them at Pentecost, without Jesus his apostles were very much like lost children. They went back to their fishing business; they presumed to elect an apostle to take the place of Judas; they had no message for the Jews. With the spirit’s outpouring at Pentecost all this changed! From then on the apostles confidently went forward with the work of preaching, making converts by the thousands. (John 21:3; Acts 1:4, 5, 15-26; 2:32-36, 41; 4:4) Clearly such misapplication of Scripture cannot prove the divine origin of the Quran!

THE QURAN PROPHETIC?

In further efforts to prove the Quran inspired Muslim scribes point to its prophetical element. No question about it, such would be strong claim to its divine origin, as the strongest circumstantial evidence that the Bible is indeed God’s Word is the fulfillment of its many prophecies. Moses foretold ever so many things regarding Egypt and his people which were fulfilled. (See Exodus chapters 7-14; Leviticus chapter 26; Deuteronomy 17:14, 15; 31:6-8.) Two hundred years in advance Isaiah foretold the deliverance of the Jews from captivity and even gave the name of the one who was to release them, namely Cyrus. (Isa. 44:28; 45:1-7) Jeremiah accurately foretold that the land would lie desolate seventy years. (Jer. 25:11; Dan. 9:2) Daniel correctly foretold the succession of world empires, as well as giving the exact year that Messiah the prince would come. (Daniel chapters 8 and 9) Upward of thirty outstanding events in the life of Jesus were accurately foretold; and unquestionably Jesus’ own prophecy, recorded at Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21, is finding its fulfillment today. And all these specific as to details.

But what are the prophecies of the Quran, the fulfillments of which would stamp it as inspired? The foremost one to which Muslim theologians refer is that found at Sura 30:1-3: “The [Roman Empire has been] defeated by a land hard by. But after their defeat they shall defeat their foes in a few years.” (Ali; Rodwell) This is taken to foretell the defeat the Romans administered to the Persians some ten years after having been defeated by them. However, any shrewd observer could have hazarded the guess that the Roman Empire would eventually win out. Besides, when the Quran was originally written, no vowel points were used and so the passage could just as well have been translated “they shall be defeated” as “they shall defeat”. And this is generally quoted as the foremost example of prophecy in the Quran.

On the other hand, a Quranic prophecy that has signally failed is that Islam will be “victorious over every other religion”. (Sura 9:33, Rodwell) Muslims can account for but some 11 per cent of the world’s population, whereas Hindus claim 12 per cent, so-called Christians 30 per cent, etc. Islam has engaged in one holy war, Jihad, after another, in obedience to the command: “Fight therefore against them until . . . the only worship be that of God.” (Sura 2:189, Rodwell) Yet, even then, Islam has not triumphed, has not been victorious over all other religions. Her armies were stopped in France A.D. 732 by Charles Martel, and at the gates of Vienna for the last time in 1683. So we see that on the basis of the prophetical element the Quran cannot claim divine origin.

INTERESTING PARALLELS

In view of all the foregoing, what alternative is left us as regards the question: “The Quran—of God or of Man?” However, rather than specifically answering this question, let us consider some very interesting parallels that history has recorded between the message of Islam and the customs and beliefs of the people with whom Muhammad came in contact at the end of the sixth and the beginning of the seventh century A.D.

The Quran proclaims that Allah is the one true God, that the faithful will be rewarded after death by being taken to paradise and that the wicked will be punished by torment. It also repeatedly condemns the Arabic practice of burying alive their infant daughters. All this was likewise preached by a group of reformers in Muhammad’s native city, Mecca, the Hanifs, with whom he was well acquainted.

The Quran commands the worship of the Kaaba stone, the pilgrimage to Mecca, the fast during the month of Ramadhan, and it also teaches a fatalism regarding the present life. All of this was part of the pagan religion of the Arabs in Muhammad’s day.

The Quran’s graphic portrayals of heaven and hell; its instructions regarding a kebla or direction in which one should turn when praying; its rules regarding prayer and purification; the idea of the use of balances on the judgment day and of Al Araf or purgatory; the opening prayer of all suras except the ninth, “In the name of God, Most Gracious, Most Merciful”; its angelism and demonology, all find their close counterparts in the Talmud of Judaism and the Avesta of Zoroastrianism.

The Quran tells of Jesus’ speaking as an infant. This account is likewise found in the apocryphal Gospel of the Infant. It also tells that as a small child Jesus made birds out of clay and caused them to become alive. The same story is found in the Gospel of Thomas, the Israelite, as well as in the Gospel of the Infant. The Quran claims that Jesus was not nailed to a stake, “crucified,” and was not put to death at the instance of the Jews (and at the hand of the Romans). This belief was also held by the sect of the “Manichaeans” and others, and is found in certain apocryphal writings, such as the Travels of the Apostles.

The Quran was produced in Arabia. Its appeal is to the preferences and prejudices of the Arabs. Repeatedly it emphasizes the fact that it was sent in pure Arabic and to Arabs. “A book whose verses (signs) are MADE PLAIN—an Arabic Koran, for men of knowledge.” (Sura 41:2, Rodwell. See also Sura 12:2; 13:37; 16:105; 42:5, Rodwell.) If the Quran were of God and for the peoples of all languages, what difference would it make what its original language was?

The same may also be said regarding the Quran’s prohibition of wine on the one hand and the permission to “marry women of your choice, two, or three or four”; both of which are contradictory to what has been man’s experience in the rest of the world regarding what is best for society, although seemingly practical for the inhabitants of the Arabian peninsula.

Finally, note the many interesting parallels between immediate local circumstances and the contents of certain suras. Muhammad’s uncle and aunt were most skeptical of Muhammad’s claim to be the prophet of Allah. Sura 111 is devoted to pronouncing a curse on them. As Islam grew in strength and engaged in wars for booty or conquest we find suras such as Nos. 2, 3, 8, etc., containing admonition to engage in war, rebuke for those failing to do so, and explanations for the outcome of certain battles.

An unpleasant rumor involved Muhammad’s favorite wife, Ayesha, in an affair with a young Muslim warrior. Sura 24 deals with this incident and condemns the scandalmongers. Muhammad was perplexed about marrying the divorced wife of his adopted son Zaid. Sura 33 grants him an exception so that he can marry her even though among the Arabs an adopted son was considered the same as one’s natural son and the Quran had forbidden the wife of one ever to become the wife of another. In another instance one of Muhammad’s wives had discovered him in her apartment with his Coptic concubine. This caused such a furor among his wives that Muhammad voluntarily denied himself having any relations with this concubine. Sura 66 assures him that he need not consider the objections of his wives in regard to his relations with the dusky Coptic concubine.

Yet all this, we are gravely assured, existed coeternal with God himself, in his presence, awaiting the time when need would cause the angel Gabriel to bring it down and transmit it to Muhammad! Could credulity be stretched any farther?

So what is our conclusion? This: Without a doubt the religion which Muhammad brought his countrymen in the Quran and forced them to accept was far superior to that which most of them were practicing; and without a doubt Muhammad started out fully convinced that he had a message from God (Allah) for the people of his day. Nevertheless his message did not come from God. It may not altogether have had human sources; his fear that the voices he heard were those of evil spirits, wicked Jinns, may have been closer to the truth than his wife’s assurances that these were those of good spirits.

Nor should this surprise us, for the Bible tells us that “Satan himself keeps transforming himself into an angel of light” and that as the “god of this system of things [he] has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through”.—2 Cor. 11:14; 4:4, NW.

Does such an observation seem too severe? Then ask: Is it reasonable to conclude that after Jehovah God used Christ Jesus to bring in a system of things far superior to the law arrangement under Moses, seven centuries later he would use Muhammad to go back to Moses and ever farther with ceremonial cleansings, fasts, prohibition of certain foods, not to say anything about the worship of the Kaaba?—Jer. 31:31-34; Matt. 5:21-48; Heb. chaps. 9, 10.

In one respect, however, Muhammad set a good example for all to follow. Under the conviction that his message was true he proclaimed it, although, for some years at least, it made him very unpopular, subjected him to ridicule, severe punishment and even caused his life to be threatened. And regarding the cardinal doctrine of the Quran, that there is but one true God, he did not change.

The Bible tells us: “Come . . . let us reason together.” (Isa. 1:18) And we are also admonished: “Buy the truth, and sell it not.” (Prov. 23:23) To arrive at the truth we must be willing to reason on the facts presented and be willing to pay the price for it, for the truth is no more popular today than it was in times past. Check the foregoing arguments by the Quran, the Bible and the facts of history, and then be convinced in your own mind as to which book is the divine revelation. Be willing to receive instruction as to what constitutes divine truth and what God requires of those who would gain salvation, eternal life in happiness. And then act accordingly.

Nice read
AntiChristian so Muhammad had a coptic concubine? You never told me
Why wasn't he stoned to death?

AntiChristian:


Same reason Judah who slept with her Daughter in law to give birth to Jesus's ancestor was not stoned to death!

Same reason your God got 32 concubines in Numbers 31:40 out of 32,000 virgins spared after their whole men including boys and infants were killed!

But the law to stone to death was not existing when Judah did his own. Though he later admitted doing wrong.
The law was functional when Muhammad did his. He should have been stoned to death so he can be purified and spared the shame of dying by poisoning from the hands of a woman he lusted after

AntiChristian:


Why didn't Jesus follow the law to stone adulterer when an adulteress was brought to him?

The law was not functional in Numbers 31 too?

Because Jesus has the power in heaven and on earth to forgive sins Matt 9:6

Now can you explain why Muhammad was not stoned for the adultery he committed?
As usual you have been jumping from pillar to post unable to admit the shameful behaviour of your prophet

was the law not functional in Numbers 31 too?

Kukutente23:

Because Jesus has the power in heaven and on earth to forgive sins Matt 9:6.

This is why i have been calling you all hypocrites!

1. Jesus has power in heaven to forgive sins then why does he still need to die?

2. Does the persons Jesus healed and forgave still need to believe Jesus died for their sins later?

3. Are they saved and born again?

Now can you explain why Muhammad was not stoned for the adultery he committed?

Muhammad just as Jesus came with some changes to the existing laws of the Moses!
Similarly as Jesus, he judges as it was revealed to him.

So Muhammad won't be stoned because he is the Judge Allah inspired with the laws just as your Jesus cannot do anything on his own!!

As usual you have been jumping from pillar to post unable to admit the shameful behaviour of your prophet

Where is the pillar and post hypocrite!

AntiChristian:
was the law not functional in Numbers 31 too?

This is why i have been calling you all hypocrites!

1. Jesus has power in heaven to forgive sins then why does he still need to die?

2. Does the persons Jesus healed and forgave still need to believe Jesus died for their sins later?

3. Are they saved and born again?

What is the relationship between the law on adultery and Numbers 31.

b1]Jesus' power to forgive sins is based on his righteousness. His death is a sacrificial death such that does who believe in the sacrifice in his death are automatically saved from sin. The fundamental difference between the two incidence is that before the death of Jesus, he had to pronounce forgiveness for an individual for the person to be freed from the guilt of sin. But with his death and resurrection, anyone just needs to believe in his death and such person's sins are forgiven.

b2] The person healed already has his sins which he committed before he was given forgiveness erased. However, any sin he commits after that incident with Christ remains except he comes under the redemption sacrifice of Christ. In essence, it was his sin from birth up till that moment that Jesus forgave. Any other sin after that and he will need the blood of Jesus to save him from sin.

b3] Being born again means taking a new nature of Christ. That Christ forgave his sins does not mean he is born again. He has to take the new nature of Christ to be born again. Is he saved from his previous sins? Yes. Is he saved from latter sins from that moment if he is not born again after that incident? No.

Muhammad just as Jesus came with some changes to the existing laws of the Moses!
Similarly as Jesus, he judges as it was revealed to him.

So Muhammad won't be stoned because he is the Judge Allah inspired with the laws just as your Jesus cannot do anything on his own!!


Where is the pillar and post hypocrite!

Do you mean Muhammad is exempted from the Laws given to him by Allah? Where is the reference for this in your Quran? And if it is so? And you are followers of Muhammad, why are you not also exempt as Muhammad was?

Kukutente23:

What is the relationship between the law on adultery and Numbers 31.

The warriors kept the virgins of wars for themselves in Numbers 31! Moses, the warriors and the Biblical God got booty shares of virgins! How is these not against the law of adultery? Even your God suppose marry human virgin booty?

b1]Jesus' power to forgive sins is based on his righteousness.

Show us where Jesus said this verbatim?

His death is a sacrificial death such that does who believe in the sacrifice in his death are automatically saved from sin. The fundamental difference between the two incidence is that before the death of Jesus, he had to pronounce forgiveness for an individual for the person to be freed from the guilt of sin. But with his death and resurrection, anyone just needs to believe in his death and such person's sins are forgiven.

So before Jesus's death he can forgive sins. So in essence he doesn't need to die to forgive everyone's sins! So his death remains pointless. This is one of my bane against Christianity where God needs a son to come die before he could forgive sins he could just forgive without stress!

b2] The person healed already has his sins which he committed before he was given forgiveness erased. However, any sin he commits after that incident with Christ remains except he comes under the redemption sacrifice of Christ. In essence, it was his sin from birth up till that moment that Jesus forgave. Any other sin after that and he will need the blood of Jesus to save him from sin.

Show us Bible verses from Jesus relating to this? Since sins can be forgiven without death then the coming of Jesus is pointless again!

b3] Being born again means taking a new nature of Christ. That Christ forgave his sins does not mean he is born again. He has to take the new nature of Christ to be born again. Is he saved from his previous sins? Yes. Is he saved from latter sins from that moment if he is not born again after that incident? No.

Where did Christ say all this?

Do you mean Muhammad is exempted from the Laws given to him by Allah? Where is the reference for this in your Quran? And if it is so? And you are followers of Muhammad, why are you not also exempt as Muhammad was?

Yes, Just as Jesus was exempted from some laws! And other prophets too!

AntiChristian:


The warriors kept the virgins of wars for themselves in Numbers 31! Moses, the warriors and the Biblical God got booty shares of virgins! How is these not against the law of adultery? Even your God suppose marry human virgin booty?

I don't believe I understand you. Are you saying keeping war booty is adultery? Is that the new defintion of adultery in Islam? If so, can you show the quranic reference and can you explain why Muhammad and asll his followers who obviously went against that law were not stoned to death? It is stupidity to claim keeping war booty is adultery. I've never heard of it anywhere. Kindly show where it was explicitly labelled so.

Show us where Jesus said this verbatim?

Jesus did not need to say that. I am only explaining to you where He derived the power to forgive sin. He was sinless himself and therefore above sin. You asked me to show you why Jesus did not follow Moses's law on adultery and I showed you were He said he has the power to forgive sin. You have not explained why Muhammad did not apply the law on adultery he applied on others on himself yet you are asking me to show you were Jesus said he can forgive sins because he is righteous. I think that is a dumb thing to ask. The fact is that he has power to forgive sins so he did not need to execute the penalty for sin. Muhammad does not have the power to forgive sin. So he couldn't have forgiven himself. Can you now explain why he didn't order himself to be stoned for adultery?

So before Jesus's death he can forgive sins. So in essence he doesn't need to die to forgive everyone's sins! So his death remains pointless. This is one of my bane against Christianity where God needs a son to come die before he could forgive sins he could just forgive without stress!
Show us Bible verses from Jesus relating to this? Since sins can be forgiven without death then the coming of Jesus is pointless again!

You need to understand the basic difference. Jesus can forgive sins. But he can forgive sins of those he pronounces such forgiveness on. However, with his death and resurrection, the sinner only needs to accept his redemption works and the sinner's sins are forgiven without Jesus needing to pronounce it. I hope you can see the difference now.
Do you mean Allah cannot forgive sins in your Islam? If he cannot, then what hope does the person who was stoned to death for his adultery have of being resurrected on the last day?
Besides, even your Quran never claimed Allah can forgive sins without stress. That's why you have to stone people to death and cut off limbs. If Allah can forgive sins without stress, why do you need to still cut off hands and stone people to death?

Where did Christ say all this?

Read John 3:1-14

Yes, Just as Jesus was exempted from some laws! And other prophets too!

Can you give the laws Jesus and other prophets were exempted from? And give the reference of this exemption from your quran? Because even David was punished for lusting after another man's wife.