easymancfc:

YOU'RE THE DUMB ONE, HOW CAN JESUS HAVE A FATHER ACCORDING TO THE FLESH WHEN HE IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD??
CAN SOMEONE HAVE TWO FATHERS

are Christians not Sons of God? Does that mean they don't have earthly father?
Look at your hypocrisy,
David not called FATHER OF JESUS ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.

Romans 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

JESUS WAS THE SEED OF DAVID MEANING DAVID WAS A FATHER TO JESUS ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.

solite3:
are Christians not Sons of God? Does that mean they don't have earthly father?
Look at your hypocrisy,
David not called FATHER OF JESUS ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.

Romans 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

JESUS WAS THE SEED OF DAVID MEANING DAVID WAS A FATHER TO JESUS ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.

Ignorance indeed,
YOU SEE YOU'RE ARGUING WITH YOURSELF AGAIN... JESUS IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD, YOU HAVE BROUGHT THAT I SAID CHRISTIANS ARE NOT SONS OF GOD WHICH I DIDNT BECAUSE OF YOUR OWN HYPOCRISY..
Jesus cannot have a father according to flesh meaning he cannot be born directly from a man..
Jesus been seed of David is because of his foster father Joseph and even his Mother Mary both are descendants of David, so by that he is a seed of David.

DAVID IS HIS ANCESTOR, IT DOESN'T CHANGE THE FACT THAT A MAN CANNOT BE HIS BIOLOGICAL FATHER BECAUSE HE IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON..

WE ARE ADOPTED SONS
Gal4:4 But when the time had fully come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, 5 to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.
romans 8:23 and not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the first fruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait for adoption as sons, the redemption of our bodies.

, WE ARE NOT DIRECTLY BEGOTTEN OF GOD Only Jesus is
John 3: 16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life

SO INCASE YOU DONT KNOW, GOD ADOPTED US, BUT HE BEGOT JESUS, SO JESUS CAN NOT HAVE TWO FATHERS UNLESS ONE BY ADOPTION, BUT WE ARE GOD'S CHILDREN BY ADOPTION..

solite3:
[ Was Mary a daughter of Adam?

Jesus was also a son of Adam.. (Luke 3:23-38)..
Being a Son of Adam doesn't limit God's power..

solite3:

OK no problem about that

Good..

solite3:

answer the question above.

Done

solite3:

the only requirement for Christ to be born is that the vessel will be a virgin and there where many who were also qualify to be Christ verse.Mary had no special quality above any other Jewish woman.

Ignorance. According to historical Christianity and the bible, God has always specially prepared his vessels, whether the ark or the tabernacle.. VIRGINITY WAS ONE CRITERIA, THAT DOESN'T STOP GOD FROM MAKING THE VESSEL WORTHY OF HIM...

solite3:

post the meaning of grace.
Modern day religion? Whether modern or old, religion will not take you anywhere

GO BACK AND READ IT YOURSELF..
Yours won't but mine will...

solite3:


post it again

Go and read it yourself...

solite3:

not everybody died, yes but all are under the penalty of sin which is death

CONTRADICTION..

solite3:

was Mary a sinner saved by grace? Was Mary among those whom Christ died? Was Mary not a daughter of Adam?

Arguing with yourself as usual..

God is not limited by Sin, He is not bound by time either,He can apply themerits of the cross anywhere.. And use it to preserve someone from sin.. If he chooses and he did..

solite3:

you went to an antichristian site to pick something that fill your own lust.
Answer my question first

Lol... its greek.. Authentic Greek interpretation from the best Academic institution in the world..
Its anti Christian. To you because it shows your faulty interpretation.. Lol..

[quote author=easymancfc post=63295975]

Ignorance indeed,
YOU SEE YOU'RE ARGUING WITH YOURSELF AGAIN... JESUS IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD, YOU HAVE BROUGHT THAT I SAID CHRISTIANS ARE NOT SONS OF GOD WHICH I DIDNT BECAUSE OF YOUR OWN HYPOCRISY..
Jesus cannot have a father according to flesh meaning he cannot be born directly from a man..

I didn't say Christians are not sons of God but that their been sons of God don't have anything to do with them having earthly father.
Stop making mockery of yourself, you implied Jesus does not have a father according to the flesh and I showed you Jesus had one.

Jesus been seed of David is because of his foster father Joseph and even his Mother Mary both are descendants of David, so by that he is a seed of David.

DAVID IS HIS ANCESTOR, IT DOESN'T CHANGE THE FACT THAT A MAN CANNOT BE HIS BIOLOGICAL FATHER BECAUSE HE IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON..

@ bold look at what hypocrisy has done to you, you are saying Jesus doesn't have a father according to the flesh but he is a seed of David. Just like saying I don't like music but I like singing.

WE ARE ADOPTED SONS
Gal4:4 But when the time had fully come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, 5 to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.
romans 8:23 and not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the first fruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait for adoption as sons, the redemption of our bodies.

, WE ARE NOT DIRECTLY BEGOTTEN OF GOD Only Jesus is
John 3: 16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, thaRomans 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; 2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel: Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the oot and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning stat whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life

God being a father has no connection with having an earthly father, Jesus as the Son of God does not have an ancestor but in his humanity a seed of a man.
According to you Jesus been the son of God means he is not the son of a man but due to your ignorance and self deceit you could not see that Jesus called himself the Son of God and the Son of Man meaning Jesus was the Son of God and the son of Man .

[quote author=solite3 post=63296919][/quote]

LOL.. IGNORANCE AND PRIDE WILL NOT LET YOU SEE THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ADOPTION AND BEGOTTEN..

[quote author=solite3 post=63296919][/quote]
How is Jesus son of David...
1. through Joseph his foster father, who is not Jesus' biological father, So David from Joseph's side is Jesus adopted seed.. from Mathew's genealogy.. (cf Mathew 1)

2. From Mary, who was a virgin.. So Jesus didn't have a biological father, but he was the seed of David through his mother, Showing again that he doesn't have a biological father according to Luke's genealogy (cf luke 3:23-38).

SO STOP DECEIVING YOURSELF..

[

quote author=easymancfc post=63296817]
Jesus was also a son of Adam.. (Luke 3:23-38)..
Being a Son of Adam doesn't limit God's power..


Good..

Done

You see ignorance? In your quest to exult Mary to a position she doesn't deserve you have messed up yourself.
Answer my question stop dodging, I didn't ask you about Jesus.
Was Mary a daughter of Adam?

Ignorance. According to historical Christianity and the bible, God has always specially prepared his vessels, whether the ark or the tabernacle.. VIRGINITY WAS ONE CRITERIA, THAT DOESN'T STOP GOD FROM MAKING THE VESSEL WORTHY OF HIM...

smh, the mountain that the glory of God descended on, what special preparation was done on it?
What other criteria need to qualify one to be mother of Jesus, with biblical reference because everything about Jesus is supported by the scriptures.

GO BACK AND READ IT YOURSELF..
Yours won't but mine will...


Go and read it yourself...

stop speaking ignorantly on what you don't know

CONTRADICTION

which contradiction, I didn't say everyone must die but everyone one including Mary are under the penalty of death. That is why Enoch was translated so that he did not die

Arguing with yourself as usual..

any point you cannot counter you will say I m arguing with myself. Lol that is poor

God is not limited by Sin, He is not bound by time either,He can apply themerits of the cross anywhere.. And use it to preserve someone from sin.. If he chooses and he did..

the merit of the cross can only be applied to sinners not righteous people. You get that?

Lol... its greek.. Authentic Greek interpretation from the best Academic institution in the world..
Its anti Christian. To you because it shows your faulty interpretation.. Lol..

let me give you a glimpse, Greek words has various meaning making it difficult to pin it to one particular meaning. The only way to understand its meaning is to read it contextually or know the circumstances or compare it with other verses.
So what you posted as the meaning of the Greek is the catholic interpretation which does contradict the scriptural inference.

easymancfc:

How is Jesus son of David...
1. through Joseph his foster father, who is not Jesus' biological father, So David from Joseph's side is Jesus adopted seed.. from Mathew's genealogy.. (cf Mathew 1)

2. From Mary, who was a virgin.. So Jesus didn't have a biological father, but he was the seed of David through his mother, Showing again that he doesn't have a biological father according to Luke's genealogy (cf luke 3:23-38).

SO STOP DECEIVING YOURSELF..

lol adopted seed, yes but not the seed of Joseph the scripture said Jesus was the seed of David, making David his father in the flesh.

zoedew:


Wished he knew what he was talking about. Romans 3:23 is clear

I don't think he read that part.

Salvation is meant for sinners and for Mary to be saved it means she was a sinner.

1 Timothy 1:15 This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief.

solite3:
Salvation is meant for sinners and for Mary to be saved it means she was a sinner.

1 Timothy 1:15 This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief.

She was saved from ever sinning.because she was to bear God himself. God cannot inhabit in a tainted vessel

Dnaz:

She was saved from ever sinning.because she was to bear God himself. God cannot inhabit in a tainted vessel

God can dwell in a tainted vessel. The mission of Jesus is clear he came to save sinners, if you deny that Mary is not a sinner it would mean that Mary is not among people Christ died for hence making God a liar.

Why did Jesus die? Was it not because of the sin debt we owe?
You don't know what you are saying

Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Saying Mary have no sin means she isn't part of the new covenant since the blood of Jesus does not apply to her

Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

The function of Christ blood is clearly outlined it is to remit for sins.

Ephesians 1:7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Saying Mary had no sin means she wasn't redeemed by the blood. The redemption is forgives of sins since Mary has no sin to be forgiven of it means God's riches of his grace didn't extend to Mary.


Hebrews 5:1 For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:

Every high priest offers gifts and sacrifices for sins. It means Mary does not need any sacrifices sin since she had no sin

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Was Mary sin among those sins Christ offered for

1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
Did Christ suffered for Mary sins?

1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Is Christ the propitiation for Mary's sins?


Revelation 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Was Mary washed from her sins with Christ blood?

Again Christ came to save sinners. Does that not include mary?

Only Christ blood was qualified for the sacrifice. Do you agree? Why was Mary blood not qualify?

solite3:


God can dwell in a tainted vessel. The mission of Jesus is clear he came to save sinners, if you deny that Mary is not a sinner it would mean that Mary is not among people Christ died for hence making God a liar.

Why did Jesus die? Was it not because of the sin debt we owe?
You don't know what you are saying

Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Saying Mary have no sin means she isn't part of the new covenant since the blood of Jesus does not apply to her

Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

The function of Christ blood is clearly outlined it is to remit for sins.

Ephesians 1:7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Saying Mary had no sin means she wasn't redeemed by the blood. The redemption is forgives of sins since Mary has no sin to be forgiven of it means God's riches of his grace didn't extend to Mary.


Hebrews 5:1 For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:

Every high priest offers gifts and sacrifices for sins. It means Mary does not need any sacrifices sin since she had no sin

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Was Mary sin among those sins Christ offered for

1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
Did Christ suffered for Mary sins?

1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Is Christ the propitiation for Mary's sins?


Revelation 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Was Mary washed from her sins with Christ blood?

Again Christ came to save sinners. Does that not include mary?

Only Christ blood was qualified for the sacrifice. Do you agree? Why was Mary blood not qualify?

Great job!

solite3:
God can dwell in a tainted vessel. The mission of Jesus is clear he came to save sinners, if you deny that Mary is not a sinner it would mean that Mary is not among people Christ died for hence making God a liar.

Why did Jesus die? Was it not because of the sin debt we owe?
You don't know what you are saying

Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Saying Mary have no sin means she isn't part of the new covenant since the blood of Jesus does not apply to her

Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

The function of Christ blood is clearly outlined it is to remit for sins.

Ephesians 1:7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Saying Mary had no sin means she wasn't redeemed by the blood. The redemption is forgives of sins since Mary has no sin to be forgiven of it means God's riches of his grace didn't extend to Mary.


Hebrews 5:1 For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:

Every high priest offers gifts and sacrifices for sins. It means Mary does not need any sacrifices sin since she had no sin

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Was Mary sin among those sins Christ offered for

1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
Did Christ suffered for Mary sins?

1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Is Christ the propitiation for Mary's sins?


Revelation 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Was Mary washed from her sins with Christ blood?

Again Christ came to save sinners. Does that not include mary?

Only Christ blood was qualified for the sacrifice. Do you agree? Why was Mary blood not qualify?

Mary was completely filled with grace (Kecharitomene) even before Christ won grace for the rest of humanity on the Cross.
She was Specially prepared not to sin simply because she was to bear God himself.
There are somethings beyond your understanding of the Scriptures

Chaire!!! Kecharitomene. It's a salutation like No other by the Angel Gabriel, its a salutation that has changed the world forever.
Chaire! Kecharitomene as it was written in Greek means "Hail full of Grace" or Hail perfected in Grace ", or Hail You who are completely graced.Luke 1:28
But What manner of Salutation is this, especially from an Angel to a Woman. For Luke 1:29 says she was startled and wondered to herself what sort of greeting this is
The angel Gabriel has appeared only twice before in the bible , 1st to Daniel in Daniel 8:16 and 2nd to Zachariah in Luke 1:11-13. In both instances both men trembled before the angel but in the case of Mary She was Saluted by the angel as Gabriel exclaimed HAIL!
Now why will an angel Terrify 2 Strong men of God and Salute a lowly teenage girl. We see the reason in his next statement." Kecharitomene meaning Perfected in grace. For not Zachariah nor Daniel was worthy of this Exaltation but Mary because she has been Completely graced by God
Why will God perfect her in grace. Luke tells us again in 31 And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus.
Luke 1:31

32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David,
Luke 1:32

33 and He will reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there will be no end."
Luke 1:33

For what does it mean to be full of grace. It means to be completely free from sin and thus she was not by her own merits but by the merits of God whom she is to concieve by the power of the Holy spirit. For God cannot grow in a body stained by sin thus he graced her from her conception with his saving grace in preparation for the role she is to play. She was conceived like us in sin but was saved from original sin by her son and then fully graced to keep her pure until he comes. For thus she exclaimed in the magnificat Luke 1:47 my spirit Rejoices in God my saviour. For she has already been saved by Her son even before her son saved us on the Cross. For she is the immaculate conception of Whom the WORD was made flesh(incarnated) and dwelt amongst us.For the word was not conceived in sin like us but was conceived in perfect purity. The word was not to be saved but to SAVE

Dnaz:

Mary was completely filled with grace (Kecharitomene) even before Christ won grace for the rest of humanity on the Cross.
She was Specially prepared not to sin simply because she was to bear God himself.
There are somethings beyond your understanding of the Scriptures

did Christ die for Mary? Simple yes or no
There is nothing difficult there
Kecharitomene has nothing to do with what you typed there.
Mary was prepared not to sin? Mary called God her saviour, saviour from what? If God can only save sinners how come Mary still needed a saviour if she had no sin?
The scripture is always difficult for heretics and liars.

ote author=Dnaz post=67084384]Chaire!!! Kecharitomene. It's a salutation like No other by the Angel Gabriel, its a salutation that has changed the world forever.
Chaire! Kecharitomene as it was written in Greek means "Hail full of Grace" or Hail perfected in Grace ", or Hail You who are completely graced.Luke 1:28
But What manner of Salutation is this, especially from an Angel to a Woman. For Luke 1:29 says she was startled and wondered to herself what sort of greeting this is
The angel Gabriel has appeared only twice before in the bible , 1st to Daniel in Daniel 8:16 and 2nd to Zachariah in Luke 1:11-13. In both instances both men trembled before the angel but in the case of Mary She was Saluted by the angel as Gabriel exclaimed HAIL!

@ bold kecharitomene does not mean full of grace. The Greek word for full of grace is γεμάτος χάρη gemátos chári and this word has only been used twice in the bible, . You took a kecharitomene and tried to stretch it beyond what it meant.
Even mary didn't understand what the angel meant until the angel rephrased his statement saying what he meant that Mary hath found favour with God not what you typed

Note Mary found grace or favour with God not that she was born with it.

why will an angel Terrify 2 Strong men of God and Salute a lowly teenage girl. We see the reason in his next statement." Kecharitomene meaning Perfected in grace. For not Zachariah nor Daniel was worthy of this Exaltation but Mary because she has been Completely graced by God

haha kecharitomene does not mean perfected in grace , someone without a knowledge of Greek will easily be deceived. Kecharitomene means one who has found favour.
Ke is a Greek rootword that is used to form past tense.
Charito is the word from which charity is gotten from
Mene- a feminine receiver of something.

Any one who read that verse would easily see that the angel wasn't saying that Mary was sinless but that Mary had received a favour from God.

What what kind of favour did Mary receive?
Let's here from Mary herself,

Luke 1:48 For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden:[ for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.

1:49 For he that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is his name.

1:50 And his mercy is on them that fear him from generation to generation.

1:51 He hath shewed strength with his arm; he hath scattered the proud in the imagination of their hearts.

1:52 He hath put down the mighty from their seats, and exalted them of low degree.

1:53 He hath filled the hungry with good things; and the rich he hath sent empty away.

1:54 He hath holpen his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy;

1:55 As he spake to our fathers, to Abraham, and to his seed for ever.


Notice, it had nothing to do with sinlessness

Why will God perfect her in grace. Luke tells us again in 31 And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus.
Luke 1:31

32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David,
Luke 1:32

33 and He will reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there will be no end."
Luke 1:33

how does this verse correlate with Mary sinlessness.

For what does it mean to be full of grace. It means to be completely free from sin and thus she was not by her own merits but by the merits of God whom she is to concieve by the power of the Holy spirit. For God cannot grow in a body stained by sin thus he graced her from her conception with his saving grace in preparation for the role she is to play. [b]She was conceived like us in sin [/b]but was saved from original sin by her son and then fully graced to keep her pure until he comes. For thus she exclaimed in the magnificat Luke 1:47 my spirit Rejoices in God my saviour. For she has already been saved by Her son even before her son saved us on the Cross. For she is the immaculate conception of Whom the WORD was made flesh(incarnated) and dwelt amongst us.For the word was not conceived in sin like us but was conceived in perfect purity. The word was not to be saved but to SAVE

Seriously Can God grow? @bold now you agree with me that Mary was born in sin just like us. Jesus didn't share from the sin of Mary because a child cannot share from the sin nature of his mother so there is no need for Mary to be sinless only that she should be virgin

Look at this verse,

Psalms 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.

Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

In as much as Mary was born in sin it means she was just a sinner like everyone else and for God for her sins to be forgiven the blood of Christ is needed.


Hebrews 9:22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.Without the blood of Jesus Mary sins cannot be forgiven.